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ISACA CCAK (Certificate of Cloud Auditing Knowledge) exam is an industry-recognized certification that validates a professional's expertise in cloud auditing. Certificate of Cloud Auditing Knowledge certification is designed for individuals who want to develop their skills and knowledge in cloud computing, security, and audit practices. The CCAK exam covers a broad range of topics related to cloud computing, including cloud service models, cloud security and privacy, compliance and audit management, and cloud risk management.

The CCAK program is designed for individuals who are involved in auditing, risk management, compliance, and governance of cloud computing systems. Certificate of Cloud Auditing Knowledge certification provides individuals with a comprehensive understanding of the various components of cloud computing systems, including infrastructure, platform, and software as a service. The program also covers cloud security, risk management, and compliance frameworks. It equips individuals with the knowledge and skills required to identify, assess, and mitigate risks related to cloud computing systems.

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ISACA Certificate of Cloud Auditing Knowledge Sample Questions (Q31-Q36):

NEW QUESTION # 31
After finding a vulnerability in an Internet-facing server of an organization, a cybersecurity criminal is able to access an encrypted file system and successfully manages to overwrite parts of some files with random data. In reference to the Top Threats Analysis methodology, how would the technical impact of this incident be categorized?

A. As a control breach
B. As an integrity breach
C. As a confidentiality breach
D. As an availability breach

Answer: B

Explanation:
As an integrity breach. The technical impact of this incident can be categorized as an integrity breach, which refers to the effect of a cloud security incident on the protection of data from unauthorized modification or deletion. Integrity is one of the three security properties of an information system, along with confidentiality and availability.
The incident described in the question involves a cybersecurity criminal finding a vulnerability in an Internet-facing server of an organization, accessing an encrypted file system, and overwriting parts of some files with random data. This is a type of data tampering or corruption attack that affects the accuracy and reliability of the data. The fact that the file system was encrypted does not prevent the integrity breach, as the attacker did not need to decrypt or read the data, but only to overwrite it. The integrity breach can have serious consequences for the organization, such as data loss, data inconsistency, data recovery costs, and loss of trust.
The other options are not correct categories for the technical impact of this incident. Option B, as an availability breach, is incorrect because availability refers to the protection of data and services from disruption or denial, which is not the case in this incident. Option C, as a confidentiality breach, is incorrect because confidentiality refers to the protection of data from unauthorized access or disclosure, which is not the case in this incident. Option D, as a control breach, is incorrect because control refers to the ability to manage or influence the behavior or outcome of a system or process, which is not a security property of an information system. References: =
* Top Threats Analysis Methodology - CSA1
* Top Threats Analysis Methodology - Cloud Security Alliance2
* OWASP Risk Rating Methodology | OWASP Foundation3
* OEE Factors: Availability, Performance, and Quality | OEE4
* The Effects of Technological Developments on Work and Their

NEW QUESTION # 32
What legal documents should be provided to the auditors in relation to risk management?

A. Inventory of third-party attestation reports
B. Policies and procedures established around third-party risk assessments
C. Enterprise cloud strategy and policy
D. Contracts and service level agreements (SLAs) of cloud service providers

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
Contracts and SLAs are legal documents that define the roles, responsibilities, expectations, and obligations of both the cloud service provider (CSP) and the cloud customer. They also specify the terms and conditions for service delivery, performance, availability, security, compliance, data protection, incident response, dispute resolution, liability, and termination. An auditor should review these documents to assess the alignment of the CSP's services with the customer's business requirements and risk appetite, as well as to identify any gaps or inconsistencies that may pose legal risks. References:
ISACA, Certificate of Cloud Auditing Knowledge (CCAK) Study Guide, 2021, p. 35-36 Cloud Security Alliance (CSA), Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) v4.0, 2021, GRM-01: Contracts and SLAs

NEW QUESTION # 33
Which of the following is a detective control that may be identified in a Software as a Service (SaaS) service provider?

A. Data encryption
B. Incident management
C. Network segmentation
D. Privileged access monitoring

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
A detective control is a type of internal control that seeks to uncover problems in a company's processes once they have occurred1. Examples of detective controls include physical inventory checks, reviews of account reports and reconciliations, as well as assessments of current controls1. Detective controls use platform telemetry to detect misconfigurations, vulnerabilities, and potentially malicious activity in the cloud environment2.
In a Software as a Service (SaaS) service provider, privileged access monitoring is a detective control that can help identify unauthorized or suspicious activities by users who have elevated permissions to access or modify cloud resources, data, or configurations. Privileged access monitoring can involve logging, auditing, alerting, and reporting on the actions performed by privileged users3. This can help detect security incidents, compliance violations, or operational errors in a timely manner and enable appropriate responses.
Data encryption, incident management, and network segmentation are examples of preventive controls, which are designed to prevent problems from occurring in the first place. Data encryption protects the confidentiality and integrity of data by transforming it into an unreadable format that can only be decrypted with a valid key1. Incident management is a process that aims to restore normal service operations as quickly as possible after a disruption or an adverse event4. Network segmentation divides a network into smaller subnetworks that have different access levels and security policies, reducing the attack surface and limiting the impact of a breach1.
References:
Detective controls - SaaS Lens - docs.aws.amazon.com3, section on Privileged access monitoring Detective controls | Cloud Architecture Center | Google Cloud2, section on Detective controls Internal control: how do preventive and detective controls work?4, section on SaaS Solutions to Support Internal Control Detective Control: Definition, Examples, Vs. Preventive Control1, section on What Is a Detective Control?

NEW QUESTION # 34
DevSecOps aims to integrate security tools and processes directly into the software development life cycle and should be done:

A. in all development steps.
B. after go-live.
C. at the beginning of the development cycle.
D. at the end of the development cycle.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
According to the CCAK Study Guide, the business continuity management and operational resilience strategy of the cloud customer should be formulated jointly with the cloud service provider, as they share the responsibility for ensuring the availability and recoverability of the cloud services. The strategy should cover all aspects of business continuity and resilience planning, taking inputs from the assessed impact and risks, to consider activities for before, during, and after a disruption. These activities include prevention, mitigation, response, recovery, restoration, and improvement. The strategy should also define the roles and responsibilities of both parties, the communication channels and escalation procedures, the testing and exercising plans, and the review and update mechanisms1 The other options are not correct because:
Option B is not correct because the strategy should not only be developed within the acceptable limits of the risk appetite, but also aligned with the business objectives and stakeholder expectations of both parties. The risk appetite is only one of the factors that influence the strategy formulation1 Option C is not correct because the strategy should not only cover the activities required to continue and recover prioritized activities within identified time frames and agreed capacity, but also consider the activities for before and after a disruption, such as prevention, mitigation, improvement, etc. The strategy should also include other elements such as roles and responsibilities, communication channels, testing plans, etc1 References: 1: ISACA, Cloud Security Alliance. Certificate of Cloud Auditing Knowledge (CCAK) Study Guide. 2021. pp. 83-84.

NEW QUESTION # 35
Who is accountable for the use of a cloud service?

A. The supplier
B. The organization (client)
C. The cloud service provider
D. The cloud access security broker (CASB)

Answer: B

Explanation:
The organization (client) is accountable for the use of a cloud service. Accountability in cloud computing is the responsibility of cloud service providers and other parties in the cloud ecosystem to protect and properly process the data of their clients and users. However, accountability ultimately rests with the organization (client) that uses the cloud service, as it is the data owner and controller. The organization (client) has to ensure that the cloud service provider and its suppliers meet the agreed-upon service levels, security standards, and regulatory requirements. The organization (client) also has to perform due diligence and oversight on the cloud service provider and its suppliers, as well as to comply with the shared responsibility model, which defines how the security and compliance tasks and obligations are divided between the cloud service provider and the organization (client)123.
The other options are not correct. Option A, the cloud access security broker (CASB), is incorrect because a CASB is a software tool or service that acts as an intermediary between cloud users and cloud service providers, providing visibility, data security, threat protection, and compliance. A CASB does not use the cloud service, but facilitates its secure and compliant use4. Option B, the supplier, is incorrect because a supplier is a third-party entity that provides services or products to the cloud service provider, such as infrastructure, software, hardware, or support. A supplier does not use the cloud service, but supports its delivery5. Option C, the cloud service provider, is incorrect because a cloud service provider is a company that provides cloud computing services to the organization (client). A cloud service provider does not use the cloud service, but offers it to the organization (client)6. References :=
* Accountability Issues in Cloud Computing (5 Step ... - Medium1
* Shared responsibility in the cloud - Microsoft Azure2
* Who Is Responsible for Cloud Security? - Security Intelligence3
* What is CASB? - Cloud Security Alliance4
* Cloud Computing: Auditing Challenges - ISACA5
* What is Cloud Provider? - Definition from Techopedia

NEW QUESTION # 36
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